“Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men” – 1 Cor 6:9 (NIV). Usually you’ll find a note about this verse saying something like, “The words men who have sex with men translate two Greek words that refer to the passive and active participants in consensual homosexual acts.”
For many, they’ve never really looked into this. Especially of those being swayed by secular culture. And there are some who are trying to explain away the meaning of these words, that these words don’t really mean what we think it means. The argument is that Paul, in the historical context, meant exploitative sex, not loving, consensual sex. Is that so?