Category Archives: Sin

Between A Holy God and a Rebellious People

I came across this passage this morning:

“When the Israelites were in the desert, they found a man gathering wood on the Sabbath day. Those who found him gathering wood brought him to Moses, Aaron, and the entire community. They placed him in custody, because it wasn’t clear what should be done to him. Then the Lord said to Moses: The man should be put to death. The entire community should stone him outside the camp. The entire community took him outside the camp and stoned him. He died as the Lord had commanded Moses.” – Numbers 15:32-36

This troubled me when I read this. We don’t know why he was doing what he was doing. But my first thoughts were, “what wrong was this man doing? He obviously was gathering wood to build a fire. What if he needed to cook? What if was trying to feed his family?”

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QUESTIONS: Is the Law Abrogated?

Many Christians have said that we are no longer under the Law but under Grace. But, what does that mean? Some might go so far as saying that since it’s the Spirit that convicts us, we no longer need to abide by the Commandments. But, then how do you know you have sinned or not? Is it based on whether you feel bad? Is there then no use for the Law, at all? If not, then what use is the Old Testament? Was it Jesus or Paul who taught that we are liberated from the Law? And if Paul, then why does he carry more weight over Jesus’ strict and heightened view of the Law? Does the Gospel really stand in opposition to the Law? Or, in other words, did God make a mistake in giving his chosen people the Law since it doesn’t have a salvific value, but only merely to show their wickedness? Is this what the Gospel does: it abrogate God’s laws?

Was Paul Speaking Against Exploitative Gay Sex? – Malakos and Arsenokoites

“Or do you not know that wrongdoers will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor men who have sex with men” – 1 Cor 6:9 (NIV).  Usually you’ll find a note about this verse saying something like, “The words men who have sex with men translate two Greek words that refer to the passive and active participants in consensual homosexual acts.”

For many, they’ve never really looked into this. Especially of those being swayed by secular culture. And there are some who are trying to explain away the meaning of these words, that these words don’t really mean what we think it means. The argument is that Paul, in the historical context, meant exploitative sex, not loving, consensual sex. Is that so?

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